HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES HALOARENES eamcet mcq’s

1. Toluene reacts with a halogen in the presence of iron (III) chloride giving ortho

and para halo compounds. The reaction is

(i) Electrophilic elimination reaction

(ii) Electrophilic substitution reaction

(iii) Free radical addition reaction

(iv) Nucleophilic substitution reaction

2. Which of the following is an example of vic-dihalide?

(i) Dichloromethane

(ii) 1,2-dichloroethane

(iii) Ethylidene chloride

(iv) Allyl chloride

3. The position of –Br in the compound in CH3CH==CHC(Br)(CH3)2 can be

classified as ____________.

(i) Allyl

(ii) Aryl

(iii) Vinyl

(iv) Secondary

4. Chlorobenzene is formed by reaction of chlorine with benzene in the presence

of AlCl3. Which of the following species attacks the benzene ring in this reaction?

(i) Cl–

(ii) Cl+

(iii) AlCl3

(iv) [AlCl4]–

5. Ethylidene chloride is a/an ______________.

(i) vic-dihalide

(ii) gem-dihalide

(iii) allylic halide

(iv) vinylic halide

6. A primary alkyl halide would prefer to undergo _____________.

(i) SN1 reaction

(ii) SN2 reaction

(iii) α–Elimination

(iv) Racemisation

7. Which of the following alkyl halides will undergo SN1 reaction most readily?

(i) (CH3)3C—F

(ii) (CH3)3C—Cl

(iii) (CH3)3C—Br

(iv) (CH3)3C—I

8. What should be the correct IUPAC name for diethylbromomethane?

(i) 1-Bromo-1,1-diethylmethane

(ii) 3-Bromopentane

(iii) 1-Bromo-1-ethylpropane

(iv) 1-Bromopentane

9. Molecules whose mirror image is non superimposable over them are known

as chiral. Which of the following molecules is chiral in nature?

(i) 2-Bromobutane

(ii) 1-Bromobutane

(iii) 2-Bromopropane

(iv) 2-Bromopropan-2-ol

10. Reaction of C6H5CH2Br with aqueous sodium hydroxide follows ____________.

(i) SN1 mechanism

(ii) SN2 mechanism

(iii) Any of the above two depending upon the temperature of reaction

(iv) Saytzeff rule

11. Which is the correct increasing order of boiling points of the following

compounds?

1-Iodobutane, 1-Bromobutane, 1-Chlorobutane, Butane

(i) Butane < 1-Chlorobutane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-Iodobutane

(ii) 1-Iodobutane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-Chlorobutane < Butane

(iii) Butane < 1-Iodobutane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-Chlorobutane

(iv) Butane < 1-Chlorobutane < 1-Iodobutane < 1-Bromobutane

12. Which is the correct increasing order of boiling points of the following compounds?

1-Bromoethane, 1-Bromopropane, 1-Bromobutane, Bromobenzene

(i) Bromobenzene < 1-Bromobutane < 1-Bromopropane < 1-Bromoethane

(ii) Bromobenzene < 1-Bromoethane < 1-Bromopropane < 1-Bromobutane

(iii) 1-Bromopropane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-Bromoethane < Bromobenzene

(iv) 1-Bromoethane < 1-Bromopropane < 1-Bromobutane < Bromobenzene

COORDINATION COMPOUNDS eamcet mcq’s

1. The correct IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] is

(i) Diamminedichloridoplatinum (II)

(ii) Diamminedichloridoplatinum (IV)

(iii) Diamminedichloridoplatinum (0)

(iv) Dichloridodiammineplatinum (IV)

2. Due to the presence of ambidentate ligands coordination compounds show

isomerism. Palladium complexes of the type [Pd(C6H5)2(SCN)2] and

[Pd(C6H5)2(NCS)2] are

(i) linkage isomers

(ii) coordination isomers

(iii) ionisation isomers

(iv) geometrical isomers

3. A chelating agent has two or more than two donor atoms to bind to a single

metal ion. Which of the following is not a chelating agent?

(i) thiosulphato

(ii) oxalato

(iii) glycinato

(iv) ethane-1,2-diamine

4. Which of the following species is not expected to be a ligand?

(i) NO

(ii) NH4+

(iii) NH2CH2CH2NH2

(iv) CO

5. What kind of isomerism exists between [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (violet) and

[Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2⋅H2O (greyish-green)?

(i) linkage isomerism

(ii) solvate isomerism

(iii) ionisation isomerism

(iv) coordination isomerism

6. IUPAC name of [Pt (NH3)2 Cl(NO2)] is :

(i) Platinum diaminechloronitrite

(ii) Chloronitrito-N-ammineplatinum (II)

(iii) Diamminechloridonitrito-N-platinum (II)

(iv) Diamminechloronitrito-N-platinate (II)

The d- and f- Block Elements eamcet mcq’s

1. Electronic configuration of a transition element X in +3 oxidation state is

[Ar]3d 5. What is its atomic number?

(i) 25

(ii) 26

(iii) 27

(iv) 24

2. The electronic configuration of Cu(II) is 3d9 whereas that of Cu(I) is 3d10. Which

of the following is correct?

(i) Cu(II) is more stable

(ii) Cu(II) is less stable

(iii) Cu(I) and Cu(II) are equally stable

(iv) Stability of Cu(I) and Cu(II) depends on nature of copper salts

3. Generally transition elements form coloured salts due to the presence of

unpaired electrons. Which of the following compounds will be coloured in

solid state?

(i) Ag2SO4

(ii) CuF2

(iii) ZnF2

(iv) Cu2Cl2

4. On addition of small amount of KMnO4 to concentrated H2SO4, a green oily

compound is obtained which is highly explosive in nature. Identify the

compound from the following.

(i) Mn2O7

(ii) MnO2

(iii) MnSO4

(iv) Mn2O3

5. The magnetic nature of elements depends on the presence of unpaired

electrons. Identify the configuration of transition element, which shows highest

magnetic moment.

(i) 3d7

(ii) 3d5

(iii) 3d8

(iv) 3d2

6. Which of the following oxidation state is common for all lanthanoids?

(i) +2

(ii) +3

(iii) +4

(iv) +5

7. When KMnO4 solution is added to oxalic acid solution, the decolourisation is

slow in the beginning but becomes instantaneous after some time because

(i) CO2 is formed as the product.

(ii) Reaction is exothermic.

(iii) MnO4

– catalyses the reaction.

(iv) Mn2+ acts as autocatalyst.

8. There are 14 elements in actinoid series. Which of the following elements does

not belong to this series?

(i) U

(ii) Np

(iii) Tm

(iv) Fm

 9. Interstitial compounds are formed when small atoms are trapped inside the

crystal lattice of metals. Which of the following is not the characteristic property

of interstitial compounds?

(i) They have high melting points in comparison to pure metals.

(ii) They are very hard.

(iii) They retain metallic conductivity.

(iv) They are chemically very reactive.

10. The magnetic moment is associated with its spin angular momentum and

orbital angular momentum. Spin only magnetic moment value of Cr3+ ion is

___________.

(i) 2.87 B.M.

(ii) 3.87 B.M.

(iii) 3.47 B.M.

(iv) 3.57 B.M.

11. KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in alkaline medium. When alkaline KMnO4

is treated with KI, iodide ion is oxidised to ____________.

(i) I2

(ii) IO–

(iii) IO3

–

(iv) IO4

–

12. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(i) Copper liberates hydrogen from acids.

(ii) In its higher oxidation states, manganese forms stable compounds with

oxygen and fluorine.

(iii) Mn3+ and Co3+ are oxidising agents in aqueous solution.

(iv) Ti2+ and Cr2+ are reducing agents in aqueous solution.

13. When acidified K2Cr2O7 solution is added to Sn2+ salts then Sn2+ changes to

(i) Sn

(ii) Sn3+

(iii) Sn4+

(iv) Sn+

14. Highest oxidation state of manganese in fluoride is +4 (MnF4) but highest

oxidation state in oxides is +7 (Mn2O7) because ____________.

(i) fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen.

(ii) fluorine does not possess d-orbitals.

(iii) fluorine stabilises lower oxidation state.

(iv) in covalent compounds fluorine can form single bond only while oxygen

15. Although Zirconium belongs to 4d transition series and Hafnium to 5d

transition series even then they show similar physical and chemical properties

because___________.

(i) both belong to d-block.

(ii) both have same number of electrons.

(iii) both have similar atomic radius.

(iv) both belong to the same group of the periodic table.

16. Why is HCl not used to make the medium acidic in oxidation reactions of

KMnO4 in acidic medium?

(i) Both HCl and KMnO4 act as oxidising agents.

(ii) KMnO4 oxidises HCl into Cl2 which is also an oxidising agent.

(iii) KMnO4 is a weaker oxidising agent than HCl.

(iv) KMnO4 acts as a reducing agent in the presence of HCl

The p-Block Elements eamcet mcq’s

1. On addition of conc. H2SO4 to a chloride salt, colourless fumes are evolved

but in case of iodide salt, violet fumes come out. This is because

(i) H2SO4 reduces HI to I2

(ii) HI is of violet colour

(iii) HI gets oxidised to I2

(iv) HI changes to HIO3

2. In qualitative analysis when H2S is passed through an aqueous solution of

salt acidified with dil. HCl, a black precipitate is obtained. On boiling the

precipitate with dil. HNO3, it forms a solution of blue colour. Addition of excess

of aqueous solution of ammonia to this solution gives _________.

(i) deep blue precipitate of Cu (OH)2

(ii) deep blue solution of [Cu (NH3)4]2+

(iii) deep blue solution of Cu(NO3)2

(iv) deep blue solution of Cu(OH)2.Cu(NO3)2

3. In a cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid molecule, how many single and double

bonds are present?

(i) 3 double bonds; 9 single bonds

(ii) 6 double bonds; 6 single bonds

(iii) 3 double bonds; 12 single bonds

(iv) Zero double bonds; 12 single bonds

4. Which of the following elements can be involved in pπ–dπ bonding?

(i) Carbon

(ii) Nitrogen

(iii) Phosphorus

(iv) Boron

6. Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of

the halogen acids should have highest bond dissociation enthalpy?

(i) HF

(ii) HCl

(iii) HBr

(iv) HI

8. On heating with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of CO2,

white phosphorus gives a gas. Which of the following statement is incorrect

about the gas?

(i) It is highly poisonous and has smell like rotten fish.

(ii) It’s solution in water decomposes in the presence of light.

(iii) It is more basic than NH3.

(iv) It is less basic than NH3.

9. Which of the following acids forms three series of salts?

(i) H3PO2

(ii) H3BO3

(iii) H3PO4

(iv) H3PO3

10. Strong reducing behaviour of H3PO2 is due to

(i) Low oxidation state of phosphorus

(ii) Presence of two –OH groups and one P–H bond

 (iii) Presence of one –OH group and two P–H bonds

(iv) High electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus

11. On heating lead nitrate forms oxides of nitrogen and lead. The oxides formed

are ______.

(i) N2O, PbO

(ii) NO2, PbO

(iii) NO, PbO

(iv) NO, PbO2

12. Which of the following elements does not show allotropy?

(i) Nitrogen

(ii) Bismuth

(iii) Antimony

(iv) Arsenic

13. Maximum covalency of nitrogen is ______________.

(i) 3

(ii) 5

(iii) 4

(iv) 6

14. Which of the following statements is wrong?

(i) Single N–N bond is stronger than the single P–P bond.

(ii) PH3 can act as a ligand in the formation of coordination compound

with transition elements.

(iii) NO2 is paramagnetic in nature.

(iv) Covalency of nitrogen in N2O5 is four.

17. On heating ammonium dichromate and barium azide separately we get

(i) N2 in both cases

(ii) N2 with ammonium dichromate and NO with barium azide

(iii) N2O with ammonium dichromate and N2 with barium azide

(iv) N2O with ammonium dichromate and NO2 with barium azide

18. In the preparation of HNO3, we get NO gas by catalytic oxidation of ammonia.

The moles of NO produced by the oxidation of two moles of NH3 will be ______.

(i) 2

(ii) 3

(iii) 4

(iv) 6

19. The oxidation state of central atom in the anion of compound NaH2PO2 will

be ______.

(i) +3

(ii) +5

(iii) +1

(iv) –3

22. Hot conc. H2SO4 acts as moderately strong oxidising agent. It oxidises both

metals and nonmetals. Which of the following element is oxidised by conc.

H2SO4 into two gaseous products?

(i) Cu

(ii) S

(iii) C

(iv) Zn

23. A black compound of manganese reacts with a halogen acid to give greenish

yellow gas. When excess of this gas reacts with NH3 an unstable trihalide is

formed. In this process the oxidation state of nitrogen changes from _________.

(i) – 3 to +3

(ii) – 3 to 0

(iii) – 3 to +5

(iv) 0 to – 3

24. In the preparation of compounds of Xe, Bartlett had taken O2

+ Pt F6

– as a base

compound. This is because

(i) both O2 and Xe have same size.

(ii) both O2 and Xe have same electron gain enthalpy.

(iii) both O2 and Xe have almost same ionisation enthalpy.

(iv) both Xe and O2 are gases.

27. Which of the following is isoelectronic pair?

(i) ICl2, ClO2

(ii) BrO2– , BrF2+

(iii) ClO2, BrF

(iv) CN–, O3

GENERAL PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES OF ISOLATION OF ELEMENTS EAMCET MCQ’S

1. In the extraction of chlorine by electrolysis of brine ____________.

(i) oxidation of Cl– ion to chlorine gas occurs.

(ii) reduction of Cl– ion to chlorine gas occurs.

(iii) For overall reaction ΔGV has negative value.

(iv) a displacement reaction takes place.

2. When copper ore is mixed with silica, in a reverberatory furnace copper matte

is produced. The copper matte contains ____________.

(i) sulphides of copper (II) and iron (II)

(ii) sulphides of copper (II) and iron (III)

(iii) sulphides of copper (I) and iron (II)

(iv) sulphides of copper (I) and iron (III)

3. A number of elements are available in earth’s crust but most abundant

elements are ____________.

(i) Al and Fe

(ii) Al and Cu

(iii) Fe and Cu

(iv) Cu and Ag

4. Zone refining is based on the principle that ___________.

(i) impurities of low boiling metals can be separated by distillation.

(ii) impurities are more soluble in molten metal than in solid metal.

(iii) different components of a mixture are differently adsorbed on an adosrbent.

(iv) vapours of volatile compound can be decomposed in pure metal.

5. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is formed by the

reduction of Cu2O with

(i) FeS

(ii) CO

(iii) Cu2S

(iv) SO2

6. In the metallurgy of aluminium ________________.

(i) Al3+ is oxidised to Al (s).

(ii) graphide anode is oxidised to carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide.

(iii) oxidation state of oxygen changes in the reaction at anode.

(iv) oxidation state of oxygen changes in the overall reaction involved in the

process.

7. Electrolytic refining is used to purify which of the following metals?

(i) Cu and Zn

(ii) Ge and Si

(iii) Zr and Ti

(iv) Zn and Hg

8. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching the metal with CN – ion. The

metal is recovered by ________________.

(i) displacement of metal by some other metal from the complex ion.

(ii) roasting of metal complex.

(iii) calcination followed by roasting.

(iv) thermal decomposition of metal complex

9. Below point ‘A’ FeO can ______________.

(i) be reduced by carbon monoxide only.

(ii) be reduced by both carbon monoxide and carbon.

(iii) be reduced by carbon only.

(iv) not be reduced by both carbon and carbon monoxide.

10. For the reduction of FeO at the temperature corresponding to point D, which

of the following statements is correct?

(i) ΔG value for the overall reduction reaction with carbon monoxide is

zero.

(ii) ΔG value for the overall reduction reaction with a mixture of 1 mol carbon

and 1 mol oxygen is positive.

(iii) ΔG value for the overall reduction reaction with a mixture of 2 mol carbon

and 1 mol oxygen will be positive.

(iv) ΔG value for the overall reduction reaction with carbon monoxide is

negative.

SURFACE CHEMISTRY EAMCET MCQ’S

1. Which of the following process does not occur at the interface of phases?

(i) crystallisation

(ii) heterogenous catalysis

(iii) homogeneous catalysis

(iv) corrosion

2. At the equilibrium position in the process of adsorption ___________.

(i) ΔH > 0

(ii) ΔH = TΔS

(iii) ΔH > TΔS

(iv) ΔH < TΔS

3. Which of the following interface cannot be obtained?

(i) liquid-liquid

(ii) solid-liquid

(iii) liquid-gas

(iv) gas-gas

4. The term ‘sorption’ stands for ____________.

(i) absorption

(ii) adsorption

(iii) both absorption and adsorption

(iv) desorption

5. Extent of physisorption of a gas increases with ___________.

(i) increase in temperature.

(ii) decrease in temperature.

(iii) decrease in surface area of adsorbent.

(iv) decrease in strength of van der Waals forces.

6. Extent of adsorption of adsorbate from solution phase increases with ________.

(i) increase in amount of adsorbate in solution.

(ii) decrease in surface area of adsorbent.

(iii) increase in temperature of solution.

(iv) decrease in amount of adsorbate in solution.

7. Which one of the following is not applicable to the phenomenon of adsorption?

(i) ΔH > 0

(ii) ΔG < 0

(iii) ΔS < 0

(iv) ΔH < 0

8. Which of the following is not a favourable condition for physical adsorption?

(i) high pressure

(ii) negative ΔH

(iii) higher critical temperature of adsorbate

(iv) high temperature

9. Physical adsorption of a gaseous species may change to chemical adsorption

with ______________.

(i) decrease in temperature

(ii) increase in temperature

(iii) increase in surface area of adsorbent

(iv) decrease in surface area of adsorbent

10. In physisorption adsorbent does not show specificity for any particular gas

because ______________.

(i) involved van der Waals forces are universal.

(ii) gases involved behave like ideal gases.

(iii) enthalpy of adsorption is low.

(iv) it is a reversible process.

11. Which of the following is an example of absorption?

(i) Water on silica gel

(ii) Water on calcium chloride

(iii) Hydrogen on finely divided nickel

(iv) Oxygen on metal surface

14. At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as ____________.

(i) molecular colloid

(ii) associated colloid

(iii) macromolecular colloid

(iv) lyophilic colloid

15. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

(i) Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration.

(ii) Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration.

(iii) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride.

(iv) Aqueous solution of sugar.

16. Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected.

(i) By addition of oppositely charged sol.

(ii) By addition of an electrolyte.

(iii) By addition of lyophilic sol.

(iv) By boiling.

17. Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by

___________.

(i) coagulation

(ii) electrolysis

(iii) diffusion

(iv) peptisation

18. A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid

as a dispersion medium is classified as ____________.

(i) solid sol

(ii) gel

(iii) emulsion

(iv) sol

20. The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in

comparison to those shown by true solutions of same concentration because

of colloidal particles __________________.

(i) exhibit enormous surface area.

(ii) remain suspended in the dispersion medium.

(iii) form lyophilic colloids.

(iv) are comparatively less in number.

21. Which of the following process is responsible for the formation of delta at a

place where rivers meet the sea?

(i) Emulsification

(ii) Colloid formation

(iii) Coagulation

(iv) Peptisation